Verified Solution • 2025–26 Session moderate

QJEEAdv16Ma4150: JEE Advanced 2016 Mathematics - Class 12 JEEAdv16Ma4150 Solution: Let for all Then

Let
f(x)=lim⁡n→∞(nn(x+n)(x+n2)...(x+nn)n!(x2+n2)(x2+n24)....(x2+n2n2))xn,f\left( x \right) = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } {\left( {{{{n^n}\left( {x + n} \right)\left( {x + {n \over 2}} \right)...\left( {x + {n \over n}} \right)} \over {n!\left( {{x^2} + {n^2}} \right)\left( {{x^2} + {{{n^2}} \over 4}} \right)....\left( {{x^2} + {{{n^2}} \over {{n^2}}}} \right)}}} \right)^{{x \over n}}}, for

all x>0. Then

Multiple Choice Options

  • A f(12)≥f(1)f\left( {{1 \over 2}} \right) \ge f\left( 1 \right)
  • B f(13)≤f(23)f\left( {{1 \over 3}} \right) \le f\left( {{2 \over 3}} \right)
  • C  f′(2)≤0\,f'\left( 2 \right) \le 0
  • D  f′(3)f(3)≥f′(2)f(2)\,{{f'\left( 3 \right)} \over {f\left( 3 \right)}} \ge {{f'\left( 2 \right)} \over {f\left( 2 \right)}}

Step-by-Step Verified Solution

f(x)=lim⁡n→∞{n2n(xn+1)(xn+12)...(xn+1n)n!n2n(x2n2+1)(x2n2+122)....(x2n2+1n2)}xnf(x) = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } {\left\{ {{{{n^{2n}}\left( {{x \over n} + 1} \right)\left( {{x \over n} + {1 \over 2}} \right)...\left( {{x \over n} + {1 \over n}} \right)} \over {n!{n^{2n}}\left( {{{{x^2}} \over {{n^2}}} + 1} \right)\left( {{{{x^2}} \over {{n^2}}} + {1 \over {{2^2}}}} \right)....\left( {{{{x^2}} \over {{n^2}}} + {1 \over {{n^2}}}} \right)}}} \right\}^{{x \over n}}}

By taking logarithm we have

ln⁡f(x)=lim⁡n→∞xn{∑r=1nln⁡(1+rxn)−∑r=1nln⁡(1+r2x2n2)}\ln f(x) = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } {x \over n}\left\{ {\sum\limits_{r = 1}^n {\ln \left( {1 + {{rx} \over n}} \right) - \sum\limits_{r = 1}^n {\ln \left( {1 + {{{r^2}{x^2}} \over {{n^2}}}} \right)} } } \right\}

By definite integration, we can write it as

ln⁡f(x)=x∫01ln⁡(1+xy)dy−x∫01ln⁡(1+x2y2)dy\ln f(x) = x\int\limits_0^1 {\ln (1 + xy)dy - x\int\limits_0^1 {\ln (1 + {x^2}{y^2})dy} }

Let xy = u

Then, ln⁡f(x)=∫0xln⁡(1+u)du−∫0xln⁡(1+u2)du\ln f(x) = \int\limits_0^x {\ln (1 + u)du - \int\limits_0^x {\ln (1 + {u^2})du} }

Using Newton-Leibnitz formula, we get

1f(x) . f′(x)=log(1+x1+x2){1 \over {f(x)}}\,.\,f'(x) = log\left( {{{1 + x} \over {1 + {x^2}}}} \right) ...... (i)

Here, at x = 1,

f′(1)f(1)=log⁡(1)=0{{f'(1)} \over {f(1)}} = \log (1) = 0

∴\therefore f′(1)=0f'(1) = 0

Now, sign scheme of f'(x) is shown below

JEE Advanced 2016 Paper 2 Offline Mathematics - Definite Integration Question 63 English Explanation

∴\therefore At x = 1, function attains maximum. Since, f(x) increases on (0, 1).

∴\therefore f(1) > f(1/2)

∴\therefore Option (a) is incorrect.

f(1/3) < f(2/3)

∴\therefore Option (b) is correct.

Also, f'(x) < 0, when x > 1

⇒\Rightarrow f'(2) < 0

∴\therefore Option (c) is correct.

Also, f′(x)f(x)=log⁡(1+x1+x2){{f'(x)} \over {f(x)}} = \log \left( {{{1 + x} \over {1 + {x^2}}}} \right)

∴\therefore f′(3)f(3)−f′(2)f(2)=log⁡(410)−log⁡(35){{f'(3)} \over {f(3)}} - {{f'(2)} \over {f(2)}} = \log \left( {{4 \over {10}}} \right) - \log \left( {{3 \over 5}} \right)

= \log (2/3) &lt; 0

\Rightarrow {{f'(3)} \over {f(3)}} &lt; {{f'(2)} \over {f(2)}}

∴\therefore Option (d) is incorrect.

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