Verified Solution • 2025–26 Session moderate

QJEEAdv16Ma28aa: JEE Advanced 2016 Physics - Class 11 JEEAdv16Ma28aa Solution: Let be a unit vector in and Given that there exists a vector in …

Let u^=u1i^+u2j^+u3k^\widehat u = {u_1} \widehat i + {u_2}\widehat j + {u_3}\widehat k be a unit vector in R3{{R^3}} and
w^=16(i^+j^+2k^).\widehat w = {1 \over {\sqrt 6 }}\left( {\widehat i + \widehat j + 2\widehat k} \right). Given that there exists a vector v→{\overrightarrow v } in R3{{R^3}} such that ∣u^×v→∣=1\left| {\widehat u \times \overrightarrow v } \right| = 1 and w^.(u^×v→)=1.\widehat w.\left( {\widehat u \times \overrightarrow v } \right) = 1. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?

Multiple Choice Options

  • A There is exactly one choice for such v→{\overrightarrow v }
  • B There are infinitely many choices for such v→{\overrightarrow v }
  • C If u^\widehat u lies in the xyxy -plane then ∣u1∣=∣u2∣\left| {{u_1}} \right| = \left| {{u_2}} \right|
  • D If u^\widehat u lies in the xzxz -plane then 2∣u1∣=∣u3∣2\left| {{u_1}} \right| = \left| {{u_3}} \right|

Step-by-Step Verified Solution

We have u^=u1i^+u2j^+u3k^\widehat u = {u_1}\widehat i + {u_2}\widehat j + {u_3}\widehat k

That is, ∣u^∣=1=u12+u22+u32\left| {\widehat u} \right| = 1 = \sqrt {u_1^2 + u_2^2 + u_3^2}

⇒u12+u22+u32=1\Rightarrow u_1^2 + u_2^2 + u_3^2 = 1

Also, it is given that

ω^=16(i^+j^+2k^)\widehat \omega = {1 \over {\sqrt 6 }}(\widehat i + \widehat j + 2\widehat k)

That is, ∣ω^∣=1\left| {\widehat \omega } \right| = 1

Now, ∣u^×v→∣=1\left| {\widehat u \times \overrightarrow v } \right| = 1

That is, ∣u^∣∣v→∣sin⁡θ=1⇒∣v→∣=1sin⁡θ\left| {\widehat u} \right|\left| {\overrightarrow v } \right|\sin \theta = 1 \Rightarrow \left| {\overrightarrow v } \right| = {1 \over {\sin \theta }}

which shows that there are infinitely many possible values exist for v→\overrightarrow v (here θ\theta is angle between the vectors v→\overrightarrow v and u^\widehat u ).

Hence, option (B) is correct.

Now, ω^ . (u^×v→)=1\widehat \omega \,.\,(\widehat u \times \overrightarrow v ) = 1

∣ω^ . (u^×v→)∣=1\left| {\widehat \omega \,.\,(\widehat u \times \overrightarrow v )} \right| = 1

That is, ∣ω^∣∣u^×v→∣cos⁡α=1\left| {\widehat \omega } \right|\left| {\widehat u \times \overrightarrow v } \right|\cos \alpha = 1

where α\alpha is the angle between ω^\widehat \omega and u^×v→\widehat u \times \overrightarrow v .

Therefore, (1)(1)cos α\alpha = 1

⇒\Rightarrow a = 0

which means that ω^\widehat \omega and u^×v→\widehat u \times \overrightarrow v are parallel vector or ω^\widehat \omega is perpendicular vector to u^\widehat u and v→\overrightarrow v .

u^ . ω^=0\widehat u\,.\,\widehat \omega = 0

(u1i^+u2j^+u3k^) . ((i^+j^+2k^)6)=0({u_1}\widehat i + {u_2}\widehat j + {u_3}\widehat k)\,.\,\left( {{{(\widehat i + \widehat j + 2\widehat k)} \over {\sqrt 6 }}} \right) = 0

u1+u2+2u3=0{u_1} + {u_2} + 2{u_3} = 0

If u^\widehat u lies in xy-plane then u3 = 0. Therefore,

u1+u2=0⇒u1=−u2⇒∣u1∣=∣u2∣{u_1} + {u_2} = 0 \Rightarrow {u_1} = - {u_2} \Rightarrow \left| {{u_1}} \right| = \left| {{u_2}} \right|

Hence, option (C) is correct.

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