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QJEEAdv05Ma6c0a: JEE Advanced 2005 Mathematics - Class 12 JEEAdv05Ma6c0a Solution: If and it follows the relation then

If y=y(x)y=y(x) and it follows the relation xcos⁡ y+y cos x=πx\cos \,y + y\,cos\,x = \pi then y′′(0)=y''(0)=

Multiple Choice Options

  • A 11
  • B −1-1
  • C π{\pi}
  • D −π- \pi

Step-by-Step Verified Solution

To find y′′(0)y''(0) , we need to differentiate the given equation twice with respect to xx and then substitute x=0x=0 .

Differentiating the equation xcos⁡ y+y cos x=πx\cos \,y + y\,cos\,x = \pi with respect to xx , we get:

cos⁡ y−xsin⁡ y⋅y′+y′cos⁡ x−ysin⁡ x=0\cos\,y - x\sin\,y \cdot y' + y'\cos\,x - y\sin\,x = 0

Now, let's differentiate this equation again with respect to xx :

−sin⁡ y⋅y′−sin⁡ y⋅y′−xcos⁡ y⋅(y′)2−xsin⁡ y⋅y′′+y′′cos⁡ x−y′sin⁡ x−y′sin⁡ x−ycos⁡ x=0- \sin\,y \cdot y' - \sin\,y \cdot y' - x\cos\,y \cdot (y')^2 - x\sin\,y \cdot y'' + y''\cos\,x - y'\sin\,x - y'\sin\,x - y\cos\,x = 0

Simplifying the equation, we get:

−2sin⁡ y⋅y′−xcos⁡ y⋅(y′)2−xsin⁡ y⋅y′′+y′′cos⁡ x−2y′sin⁡ x−ycos⁡ x=0-2\sin\,y \cdot y' - x\cos\,y \cdot (y')^2 - x\sin\,y \cdot y'' + y''\cos\,x - 2y'\sin\,x - y\cos\,x = 0

Now, let's substitute x=0x = 0 in the original equation and the first derivative equation. This will help us find the values of y(0)y(0) and y′(0)y'(0) respectively:

From the original equation, xcos⁡ y+y cos x=πx\cos \,y + y\,cos\,x = \pi , substituting x=0x = 0 , we get:

y(0)⋅1=πy(0) \cdot 1 = \pi

Therefore, y(0)=πy(0) = \pi .

Now, substituting x=0x = 0 in the first derivative equation, we get:

cos⁡ y(0)+y′(0)⋅1=0\cos\,y(0) + y'(0) \cdot 1 = 0

Substituting y(0)=πy(0) = \pi , we get:

cos⁡π+y′(0)=0\cos \pi + y'(0) = 0

Therefore, y′(0)=1y'(0) = 1 .

Finally, let's substitute x=0x = 0 , y(0)=πy(0) = \pi , and y′(0)=1y'(0) = 1 in the second derivative equation:

−2sin⁡π⋅1−0⋅cos⁡π⋅(1)2−0⋅sin⁡π⋅y′′(0)+y′′(0)cos⁡0−2⋅1⋅sin⁡0−π⋅cos⁡0=0-2\sin\pi \cdot 1 - 0 \cdot \cos \pi \cdot (1)^2 - 0 \cdot \sin \pi \cdot y''(0) + y''(0)\cos 0 - 2 \cdot 1 \cdot \sin 0 - \pi \cdot \cos 0 = 0

Simplifying the equation, we get:

y′′(0)−π=0y''(0) - \pi = 0

Therefore, y′′(0)=πy''(0) = \pi .

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